- JEE Main 2026
- 08 April Evening
- Q17
- MCQ
- 4 marks
Inverse Cosine ODE Q17
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Quick Summary
Dividing the given differential form by x√(1−x²)dx converts it into the linear ODE dy/dx + y/x = cos⁻¹(x)/√(1−x²), with integrating factor x. The right-hand side integral is handled by the substitution w=cos⁻¹x (so x=cosw, √(1−x²)=sinw), reducing it to the standard by-parts integral ∫w cosw dw. Applying the boundary condition limx→1⁻y(x)=1 fixes the constant of integration at C=2, giving the closed form y = [−cos⁻¹(x)√(1−x²) − x + 2]/x. Evaluating at x=1/2 gives y(1/2) = 3 − π/√3.
Question Replay
Let y = y(x) be the solution of the differential equation x√(1−x²) dy + (y√(1−x²) − x cos⁻¹x) dx = 0, x∈(0,1), limx→1⁻ y(x) = 1. Then y(1/2) equals:
Options
Correct Answer
Correct Answer: Option (A) — 3 − π/√3
Why This Answer
The differential form looks intimidating with the √(1−x²) and cos⁻¹x mixed together, but dividing through by x√(1−x²)dx immediately reveals a completely standard linear ODE with integrating factor x — the √(1−x²) factor was only ever there to make the equation exact in a disguised way, and it cancels cleanly. The genuinely new step is the right-hand-side integral, x·cos⁻¹(x)/√(1−x²), which is not a standard table integral but becomes one after substituting w=cos⁻¹x: it collapses to −∫w cosw dw, solvable by a single integration by parts.
The boundary condition is given as a LIMIT rather than a value at an interior point because y(x) itself is undefined in a simple sense at x=1 (the ODE’s coefficient x√(1−x²) vanishes there) — but the limit exists and is finite, and evaluating it requires recognising that cos⁻¹(x)√(1−x²) → 0 as x→1⁻ (both factors vanish, and their product vanishes even faster, like 2(1−x)).
Core Concept
Reducing to linear form. Many first-order ODEs that look unfamiliar in “differential form” M dx + N dy = 0 become the standard linear dy/dx + P(x)y = Q(x) after dividing by the right combination — always check this before searching for a more exotic technique.
By-parts under a trig substitution. Integrals combining an inverse trig function with an algebraic/trig expression in x are frequently solved by substituting w = (the inverse trig function itself), converting the whole integral into a polynomial-times-trig integral solvable by parts.
Integrating factor: e^∫dx/x = x
d/dx(xy) = x·cos⁻¹(x)/√(1-x²)
Sub w=cos⁻¹x, x=cosw, √(1-x²)=sinw, dx=-sinw dw:
∫x cos⁻¹x/√(1-x²) dx = -∫w cosw dw = -(w sinw + cosw) + C
= -[cos⁻¹(x)√(1-x²) + x] + C
xy = -cos⁻¹(x)√(1-x²) – x + C
As x→1⁻: cos⁻¹(x)√(1-x²) → 0 ⇒ y→ C-1 = 1 ⇒ C=2
Step-by-Step Solution
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Convert to linear form. Dividing by x√(1−x²)dx: dy/dx + y/x = cos⁻¹(x)/√(1−x²). Integrating factor = e^{∫dx/x} = x.
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Write the exact-derivative form: d/dx(xy) = x·cos⁻¹(x)/√(1−x²).
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Integrate the right side via w=cos⁻¹x (x=cosw, √(1−x²)=sinw, dx=−sinw dw):
∫x cos⁻¹x/√(1-x²) dx = ∫cosw·w/sinw·(-sinw)dw = -∫w cosw dw
= -(w sinw + cosw) + C = -[cos⁻¹(x)√(1-x²) + x] + C -
Write the general solution: xy = −cos⁻¹(x)√(1−x²) − x + C.
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Apply the boundary condition. As x→1⁻, cos⁻¹(x)→0 and √(1−x²)→0, so their product →0. Then y→(0−1+C)/1=C−1=1 ⇒ C=2.
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Evaluate at x=1/2: cos⁻¹(1/2)=π/3, √(1−1/4)=√3/2.
y(1/2) = [-(π/3)(√3/2) – 1/2 + 2] / (1/2)
= [3/2 – π√3/6] × 2 = 3 – π√3/3 = 3 – π/√3
Final Answer
Final Answer: Option (A) — 3 − π/√3
y(1/2) = 3 − π/√3 exactly. The exam lesson: a messy-looking differential form is worth dividing out immediately to check for hidden linear structure before reaching for a more advanced technique.
Key Facts to Remember
- Always try dividing a differential form by an obvious common factor to reveal a standard dy/dx + Py = Q structure.
- Integrating factor for dy/dx + y/x = Q(x) is x.
- Substituting w = cos⁻¹(x) (giving x=cosw, √(1−x²)=sinw) converts inverse-cosine integrals into polynomial-times-trig integrals.
- ∫w cosw dw = w sinw + cosw + C (by parts).
Common Mistakes
Mistake 1: Trying to integrate x·cos⁻¹(x)/√(1−x²) directly by parts in x, without the w=cos⁻¹x substitution, leading to a much messier (and error-prone) calculation.
Fix: Whenever cos⁻¹x and √(1−x²) appear together, substitute w=cos⁻¹x immediately — it converts both into simple trig functions of w.
Mistake 2: Mishandling the limit as x→1⁻, e.g. assuming cos⁻¹(x)√(1−x²) blows up or is indeterminate, instead of recognising both factors individually vanish.
Fix: Near x=1, cos⁻¹(x) ~ √(2(1−x)) and √(1−x²) ~ √(2(1−x)), so their product ~ 2(1−x) → 0 — a clean limit, not an indeterminate form.
FAQs
Q1. How do you convert this equation into linear ODE form?
Divide the whole equation by x√(1−x²)dx to get dy/dx + y/x = cos⁻¹(x)/√(1−x²), which is linear in y with integrating factor x (since the coefficient of y is 1/x).
Q2. What is the correct answer to this question?
y(1/2) = 3 − π/√3, option (1).
Q3. How is the right-hand side integral, x·cos⁻¹(x)/√(1−x²), evaluated?
Substitute w=cos⁻¹(x), so x=cos(w) and √(1−x²)=sin(w). The integral becomes −∫w cos(w) dw, a standard integration-by-parts problem, giving −(w sinw + cosw) + C.
Q4. Why does the limiting condition at x=1 determine the constant of integration cleanly?
As x approaches 1 from the left, both cos⁻¹(x) and √(1−x²) approach 0, and their product vanishes (like 2(1−x)), leaving a simple algebraic equation for the constant C.
Q5. How many marks is this question worth, and how long should it take?
It is a 4-mark MCQ with -1 negative marking. Recognising the linear form and the by-parts substitution takes about 3-4 minutes.
Prerequisites
Before practising this question type, make sure the following are in place:
- Linear first-order ODEs and the integrating factor method.
- Substitution w = inverse trig function to simplify mixed algebraic/inverse-trig integrands.
- Integration by parts, especially ∫w cosw dw and ∫w sinw dw.
- Limits involving cos⁻¹(x) and √(1−x²) as x→1⁻.
Revise these from the Differential Equations chapter, then attempt the related questions below.
Solved by Nishant Kumar Gupta for padholikhojee.in · JEE Main 2026 08 April Evening · Last updated: 2026-09-02 · Verified against the official question paper and answer key.